Was Aristotle correct about his statement aristotle's fallacy?

Was Aristotle correct about his statement aristotle's fallacy? If correct, explain his statement with an illustration.

Consider the following pair of forces of equal magnitude and opposite directions:

(P) Gravitational forces exerted on each other by two-point masses separated by a distance.

(Q) A couple of forces used to rotate a water tap.

(R) Gravitational force and normal force experienced by an object kept on a table.

For which of these pair/pairs the two forces do NOT cancel each other's translational effect?

Consider following forces: $\left(\mathrm{w}\right)$ Force due to tension along a string,$\left(\mathrm{x}\right)$ Normal force given by a surface, $\left(\mathrm{y}\right)$ Force due to air resistance and $\left(\mathrm{z}\right)$Buoyant force or upthrust given by a fluid. Which of these are electromagnetic forces?