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  • Last Modified 28-01-2023

Current Affairs April 2022 – Check Latest Top Stories


Current Affairs April 2022: General Awareness Section can be the easiest and most qualifying section in the most competitive exams with the right focus. To bag a good score in these sections one must follow the current affairs for at least a few minutes on a daily basis. Current affairs are vastly diversified with topics from politics, finance, sports, etc and getting lost in this vastness might be confusing sometimes. It is essential for candidates who are preparing for competitive exams to know what topics to focus on instead of wandering. Current affairs can be divided into static and dynamic. Static GK will involve topics from Indian History, Geography, Indian Polity, Indian Economy, etc and these topics can be grasped by various general knowledge-based books. Dynamic GK, on the other hand, will be based on daily happenings around the world and following them regularly will aid in cracking the competitive exams. For dynamic GK, start by reading news from quality outlets. You can start right away by bookmarking this article.

Current Affairs April 2022 is specifically designed to provide you with information on top happenings around the world to make sure your limited and precious time is well spent. Whether you are preparing for a written test or an interview for any competitive exam, you have come to the right place to enhance your Current Affairs knowledge.

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India-Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement


India and Australia recently inked a landmark trade pact, the India-Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (Ind- Aus ECTA).

The Agreement includes:

  • Allow duty-access to 96% of India’s exports to Australia, including shipments from vital sectors like gems and jewellery, textiles, apparel, and leather.
  • It will increase bilateral trade in goods and services to USD 45-50 billion over the next five years, up from around USD 27 billion.
  • It will also give India duty-access to about 85% of Australia’s exports, including coal, sheep meat, and wool.
  • It lower duty access to Australian wines, almonds, lentils, and certain fruits.

Qs. Which of the following statements about the India-Australia trade partnership is incorrect?

A. India’s 15th largest trading partner in Australia, while Australia is India’s 9th largest trading partner.

B. In 2021, bilateral commerce and services trade between India and Australia will be worth USD 27.5 billion.

C. Between 2019 and 2021, India’s merchandise exports to Australia increased by 135%. 

D. In 2021, India imported USD 15.1 billion in commodities from Australia, primarily raw materials, minerals, and intermediate goods.

Ans: A

  • India’s 17th largest trading partner in Australia, while Australia is India’s 9th largest trading partner

India – Turkmenistan Bilateral Meet


The Ashgabat Agreement on International Transport and Transit Corridor and the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC).

  • India’s Chabahar port in Iran may be used to boost trade between India and Central Asia.
  • The talk was on the Turkmenistan-Afghanistan-Pakistan-India (TAPI) pipeline. 
  • India expressed gratitude to Turkmenistan for supporting India’s permanent membership in a reformed and expanded United Nations Security Council and India’s initiatives as a non-permanent member of the UNSC during the years 2021-22.

Qs. Which of the following countries is not included in the TAPI pipeline? 

A. Turkey

B. Afghanistan

C. Pakistan

D. India

Ans: A

Human Genome


The Genome India Initiative, an ambitious gene-mapping project, was approved by the Ministry of Science and Technology in 2020. Nearly two decades ago, scientists produced the first map of the human genome, which was heralded as a breakthrough. 

  • Scientists made a breakthrough in 2003, but it was incomplete since roughly 8% of human DNA had not been sequenced.
  • A huge group has been responsible for completing the human genome’s 8% image for the first time.
  • A genome is all of an organism’s genetic material, and while the human genome is essentially the same in everyone, a small portion of the DNA does differ from one person to the next.

Qs. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. James Watson and Francis Crick discovered that DNA is a “double helix” in 1943.

B. Each genome contains all of the information required to construct and maintain a specific organism.

C. The genetic code of every organism is encoded in Deoxyribose Nucleic Acid (DNA), the building element of life.

D. A copy of the whole genome in humans has over 3 billion DNA base pairs.

Ans: A

The discovery that DNA is structured as a “double helix” by James Watson and Francis Crick in 1953, started the quest for understanding how genes dictate life, its traits, and what causes diseases.

Operation Upalabdh


Under Operation Upalabdh, the Railway Protection Force (RPF) began a pan-India drive against accused black marketeers. The RPF had previously initiated Effort AAHT, a countrywide operation to combat human trafficking, in February 2022.

What is the purpose of Operation Upalabdh?

  • The month-long Operation Upalabdh campaign successfully reduced the activity of touts and made train tickets more accessible to the general public.
  •  In March 2022, the Railway Protection Force (RPF) boosted its efforts in response to the complaints and launched a pan-India battle against touting practices.

Qs. What is the main objective of Operation Upalabdh by RPF?

A. Illicit ticketing

B. Human trafficking

C. Child Labour

D. Illicit Vendors

Ans: A

Sixth Assessment Report of Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)


The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), the UN’s climate research body, recently released the third section of its Sixth Assessment Report (AR6).

  • The second part of the report discussed climate change consequences, hazards and vulnerabilities, and adaptation alternatives, published in March 2022.
  • The physical science of climate change was covered in the first half of this report, released in 2021. It has previously warned that 1.5 degrees Celsius warming was likely to occur before 2040.
  • Global net anthropogenic greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions in 2019 were 59 gigatonnes of carbon dioxide equivalent (GtCO2e), up 54% from 1990.

Qs. Consider the following statements.

a. 41% of the world’s population lived in countries emitting less than 3 tCO2e per capita in 2019.

b. To achieve the C1 pathway, global GHG emissions must fall by 43% by 2030.

c. The IPCC states that low-cost climate mitigation options could halve global GHG emissions by 2050.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

A. Only a

B. Only b

C. Only c

D. All of the above 

Ans: C

  • The IPCC states that low-cost climate mitigation options could halve global GHG emissions by 2030.

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WHO: Air Quality Database 2022

The World Health Organization (WHO) has released Air Quality Database 2022, demonstrating that almost the entire global population (99%) breathes air that exceeds WHO’s air quality regulations.

  • The World Health Organization (WHO) has collected ground measurements of annual mean nitrogen dioxide concentrations for the first time (NO2). 
  • It also includes measures of Particulate Matter (PM) with sizes of 10 m or less (PM10) or 2.5 m (PM2.5) (PM2.5).
  • Earlier this year, the World Air Quality Report for 2021 was released.

Qs. The World Health Organization’s new standards set air quality levels for six pollutants. Which of the following is not part of the group?

A. Particulate Matter (PM 2.5 and 10) 

B. Nitrogen dioxide (NO2) 

C. Sulfur dioxide (SO2) 

D. Carbon dioxide (CO2)

Ans: D

  • The WHO’s new standards prescribe air quality levels for six pollutants: particulate matter (PM 2.5 and 10), ozone (O3), nitrogen dioxide (NO2), sulphur dioxide (SO2), and carbon monoxide (CO) (CO).

Near Field Communication (NFC) technology

Science & Technology

In conjunction with Pine Labs, Google Pay has announced new functionality in India called “Tap to pay for UPI.” Near Field Communication (NFC) technology is used in this function.

  • Users with NFC-enabled Android smartphones and UPI (Unified Payments Interface) accounts will be linked to Google Pay. They can make purchases across the country by tapping their phones on any Pine Labs Android point-of-sale (POS) terminal.
  • Scanning a QR code or inputting a UPI-linked mobile number has been the traditional method until now.
  • Apple announced Tap to Pay on the iPhone in February 2022.

Qs. Which of the following statements are incorrect for Near Field Communication (NFC) technology?

A. NFC (Near Field Communication) is a wireless networking technology that allows NFC-enabled devices to communicate across short distances.

B. In 2008, Nokia produced the first NFC-enabled phone.

C. It uses electromagnetic radio fields to deliver data.

D. It is used to perform money transactions in contactless banking cards.

Ans: B

  • Nokia released the first NFC-enabled phone in 2007.

Nipah virus infection (NiV)

Science & Technology

Scientists recently discovered IgG antibodies against the Nipah virus infection (NiV) in 51 bats taken in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Puducherry.

  • It’s a zoonotic (zoonotic) virus (it is transmitted from animals to humans).
  • Nipah Virus encephalitis is caused by an RNA or Ribonucleic acid virus from the family Paramyxoviridae, genus Henipavirus, closely related to Hendra virus.
  • Infection with the Hendra virus (HeV) is a relatively new zoonosis that produces severe and frequently fatal diseases in both horses and humans.
  • In 1998 and 1999, it initially appeared in Malaysia and Singapore.
  • It was first discovered in domestic pigs and has now spread to other domestic animals such as dogs, cats, goats, horses, and sheep.

Qs. Consider the following statements for the Nipah virus.

a. Fruit bats, also known as ‘flying foxes,’ spread the disease because they are natural reservoir hosts for the Nipah and Hendra viruses.

b. Bat urine, as well as bat faeces, saliva, and birthing fluids, contain the virus.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

A. Only a

B. Only b

C. Both a & b 

D. None of the above

Ans: D

INS (Indian Naval Ship) Valsura


The President of India has presented the INS (Indian Naval Ship) Valsura with the prestigious President’s Colour. India’s highest award is given to a military unit in honour of outstanding service to the country.

  • The Indian Navy was the first Indian Armed Force to be awarded the President Colour by Dr. Rajendra Prasad in 1951.
  • Colours are a British Army tradition that India and several Commonwealth countries have adopted.
  • Colours have traditionally been connected with four types of symbols: standards, guidons, colours, and banners.

Qs. Which of the following statements are correct for INS Valsura?

a. The name “Valsura” was created by combining two Tamil words: “Vaal” (which means sword) and “Sorrah” (shark).

b. During World War II, the unit was commissioned as a torpedo training school to improve the Indian Royal Navy’s capability.

c. On December 15, 1942, Maharani Gulab Kunverba Sahiba of Nawanagar commissioned the institution.

d. HMIS Valsura was renamed INS Valsura on July 1, 1950, after the country gained independence.

A. a, b & c

B. a, b & d

C. b, c & d

D. All of the above

Ans: D

Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) and their Delivery Systems (Prohibition of Unlawful Activities) Amendment Bill, 2022


The Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) and their Delivery Systems (Prohibition of Unlawful Activities) Amendment Bill, 2022, was recently introduced in the Lok Sabha by the Indian government.

  • The law proposes to make it illegal to finance any activity related to weapons of mass destruction and allow authorities to take action against anyone who finances such activities.
  • The bill aims to amend the 2005 Weapons of Mass Destruction and Their Delivery Systems (Prohibition of Unlawful Activities) Act.
  • The 2005 Act was enacted to prevent illegal actions involving weapons of mass destruction and their delivery systems.
  • This Act covers unlawful activities relating to biological, chemical and nuclear weapons and their delivery systems.

Qs. Which international treaties don’t regulate efforts to prevent the proliferation of weapons of mass destruction?

A. Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty of 1968

B. Biological Weapons Convention of 1972

C. Chemical Weapons Convention of 1993

D. The Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons 2017

Ans: D

Wage rates revised under MGNREGA for the financial year 2022-23


The Ministry of Rural Development recently announced new compensation rates for 2022-23 under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA). The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act of 2005 specifies the wage rates.

The MGNREGA wage rates are determined by changes in the CPI-AL (Consumer Price Index-Agriculture Labor), representing rural inflation increases.

What are the Revisions to the Rates?

  • Twenty-one of the 34 states and union territories are getting a raise of less than 5%, while ten states are getting a raise of more than 5%.
  • Goa has the highest pay increase of the 31 states and union territories, at 7.14%.
  • Meghalaya has the smallest rise of 1.77%.

Qs. Which three states had no change in the Revised Rates wage rates of MGNREGA 2022-23?

A. Manipur, Mizoram and Tripura.

B. Manipur, Mizoram and Meghalaya

C. Manipur, Goa and Tripura

D. Meghalaya, Goa and Tripura

Ans: A

Ganoderma lucidum (Magical Mushroom)

Science & Technology

Recently, initiatives have been made worldwide to popularise Ganoderma lucidum (Magical Mushroom) as a source of income and business by cultivating it on wood logs and sawdust.

  • It’s a medicinal fungus that’s been used for generations to treat diabetes, cancer, inflammation, ulcers, and bacterial and skin infections. However, the fungus’s potential in India is still being investigated.
  • It is regarded as one of the most important medicinal mushrooms globally due to the multiple therapeutic characteristics of its chemical ingredients.
  • They’ve been given names like “immortal mushroom,” “celestial herb,” and “auspicious plant.” It’s also known as the “red reishi mushroom” worldwide.

Qs. Consider the following statements for Magical Mushrooms?

a. It thrives in hot, humid areas and prefers to grow in mixed woods in subtropical to temperate climates.

b. In India, the plant is cultivated on wood logs (locally called billets).

c. The dried fruiting bodies or raw powder of Ganoderma lucidum can be sold at Rs 4,000-5000 per kilogram.

d. Mass production are restricted to China, Japan, Malaysia, Thailand, Korea and the USA.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

A. a, b & c

B. a, b & d

C. b, c & d

D. All of the above

Ans: D

Electoral Bonds


The Supreme Court will consider a pending petition challenging the 2018 Electoral Bond Scheme. Two NGOs, Common Cause and the Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR), have challenged the plan, claiming it is “distorting democracy.”

What are Electoral Bonds, and how do they work?

  • These bonds are available in denominations of Rs 1,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 1 lakh, Rs 10 lakh, and Rs 1 crore, with no upper limit.
  • The State Bank of India is authorised to issue and redeem these bonds with a fifteen-day validity period.
  • These bonds can only be redeemed in a registered political party’s authorised account.
  • The bonds are available for purchase by any Indian citizen for ten days in January, April, July, and October, or as the Central Government may specify.
  • Individuals can purchase bonds either alone or collectively with other individuals.
  • The bond does not mention the donor’s name.

Qs. Which of the following statement is incorrect for Electoral Bonds?

A. The electoral bonds were introduced with the Finance Bill (2017). 

B. On January 29, 2018 the Narendra Modi-led NDA government notified the Electoral Bond Scheme 2018.

C. The electoral bonds are available for purchase for 15 days in the beginning of every quarter. 

D. The bonds will be issued in multiples of Rs 1,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 100,000 and Rs 1 crore (the range of a bond is between Rs 1,000 to Rs 1 crore).

Ans: C

  • The electoral bonds are available for purchase for 15 days in the beginning of every quarter.

Defense – Third positive indigenisation list 


The Ministry of Defense just announced the third positive indigenization list, including 101 important equipment/platforms.

  • In August 2020, the ‘First Negative Indigenisation’ List, which included 101 things, was published.
  • The Second Indigenisation List, which includes 108 articles, was announced in June 2021.

What is the Third List, and What Does It Mean?

  • Light Weight Tanks, Mounted Arty Gun Systems, Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessels (NGOPV), and other highly complicated systems, sensors, weapons, and ammunition are included.
  • From December 2022 through December 2027, these weapons and systems are expected to be indigenized in stages.
  • According to the Defense Acquisition Procedure (DAP) 2020, these 101 goods will now be bought from local vendors.

Qs. What is a one-stop-shop online site that allows suppliers to sign up for items to be indigenized?


B. E-Biz 

C. E-Cell


Ans: A

  • Defence Minister Rajnath Singh has launched a portal SRIJAN which is a one-stop-shop online portal that provides access to the vendors to take up items for indigenization. This will help industry partners to play an active role in the goal of self-reliance in the defense sector.

Earth Observation Satellite: EOS-02

Science & Technology

According to the Union Minister of Science and Technology, the EOS (Earth Observation Spacecraft)-02 satellite will be launched in 2022.

  • EOS-02 is a technology demonstration satellite for a variety of innovative technologies, including agriculture, forestry, geology, hydrology, miniaturised power electronics, reaction wheels, and other uses, and it is the payload for SSLV-1 (Small Satellite Launch Vehicle).
  • The PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle)-C52 rocket had previously successfully deployed the Indian Space Research Organisation’s earth observation satellite EOS-04 and two tiny satellites (INSPIREsat-1 and INS-2TD) into their target orbit.

Qs. Which of the following is not the correct match for EOS Series and its functions?

A. EOS-01 – Agriculture, Forestry & disaster management support

B. EOS-03 – First Agile Earth Observation satellite in Geostationary orbit

C. EOS-04 – Radar Imaging satellite

D. EOS-06 – Technology demonstration satellite

Ans: D

  • EOS-06:Earth Observation satellite meant for applications, which include ocean related services and advisories towards potential fishing zone forecast , ocean state forecast.

Jupiter-like protoplanet 

Science & Technology

According to astronomers, the Hubble Space Telescope has captured images of a Jupiter-like protoplanet growing in an intensive and violent process.

What is the Newly Forming Planet, and how did it come to be?

  • Hubble photographed AB Aurigae b, a newly developing planet in a protoplanetary disc with unique spiral structures spinning around and encircling a young star believed to be 2 million years old.
  • That’s also around when planet formation began in our solar system.
  • The distance between our sun and it is 531 light-years.
  • This protoplanet is around nine times the size of Jupiter, and it orbits its host star at a distance of 8.6 billion miles, more than twice the distance between our Sun and Pluto.

Qs. What is the name of the newly formed planet captured by Hubble?

A. AB Aurigae a 

B. AB Aurigae b 

C. AB Aurigae c 

D. AB Aurigae d

Ans: B

The Supreme Court (SC) upheld FCRA, 2020


The Supreme Court of the United States recently upheld the constitutionality of the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Act (FCRA) of 2020.

According to the court, receiving foreign donations cannot be an absolute right and can be limited by the legislature.

  • The Indian government proposed revisions to the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) in 2020, imposing new limitations on how NGOs, individuals, and other organisations could accept or use funds provided from abroad.

Qs. Which of the following statements are incorrect for the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), 2010?

A. The Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) governs the foreign funding of individuals in India.

B. Individuals may accept foreign contributions without the permission of the MHA.

C. Acceptance of such overseas contributions is subject to a monetary restriction of Rs. 35,000.

D. Organizations are required to register every five years under the Act.

Ans: C

  • The monetary limit for acceptance of such foreign contributions shall be less than Rs. 25,000.

Solid Fuel Ducted Ramjet (SFDR) Booster


At the Integrated Test Range (ITR) in Chandipur, off the coast of Odisha, India, successfully flight tested the Solid Fuel Ducted Ramjet (SFDR) Booster, a missile weapon. SFDR was first developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) in 2017, and successful testing was conducted in 2018 and 2019.

What exactly is SFDR?

  • It is a missile propulsion technology that India and Russia jointly developed.
  • The SFDR technology is a missile propulsion system based on the principle of the Ramjet Engine.

Qs. Consider the following statements for SFDR.

a. It allows the missile to intercept aircraft threats at supersonic speeds over vast distances.

b. Currently, SFDR technology is only available in a few nations throughout the world.

c. Air-to-air missiles which use SFDR technology can achieve longer ranges as they do not require oxidisers.

d. The SFDR-based missiles travel at supersonic speeds and have exceptional manoeuvrability, ensuring that the target aircraft cannot escape.

Which of the following is/are correct?

A. a, b & c

B. a, b & d

C. b, c & d

D. All of the above

Ans: D

PLI Schemes


The NITI Aayog has started work on developing a set of objective metrics to track value creation by enterprises that receive financial incentives under PLI initiatives.

The empowered group of secretaries, established in June 2020, was entrusted with finding PLI scheme bottlenecks, collaborating between states and firms for faster approvals, reviewing and assuring swift investments in PLI schemes, and ensuring total project turnaround.

What’s the Plan?

  • The NITI Aayog wants to enlist the help of an external organisation – state-owned IFCI Ltd or SIDBI – to create and prepare a centralised database to track success in the PLI programmes across industries.
  • This database will track the added value, actual exports vs commitments, and job creation.

Qs. Which of the following statements are not correct? 

A. The PLI scheme began in March 2020 

B. The scheme targeted three industries: mobile and allied component manufacturing, electrical component manufacturing, and medical devices.

C. In Budget 2022-23, the government allocated Rs 2.97 lakh crore for PLI programmes.

D. An additional of Rs 15,500 crore allotted for PLI solar PV modules.

Ans: D

  • In Budget 2022-23, the government allocated Rs 1.97 lakh crore for PLI programmes in various industries, with an additional Rs 19,500 crore for PLI for solar PV modules.

Pinaka MK- I Rocket System (EPRS) Enhanced


The Enhanced Pinaka Mk-I Rocket System (EPRS) successfully test-launched an enhanced version of the Pinaka type, which has served with the Indian Army for the previous decade, at the Pokhran range in Rajasthan.

  • The improvements incorporate advanced technologies that increase the range to meet the changing needs of the battlefield.
  • The Mark-1 has a range of 38 kilometres, but the enhanced version tested in the preceding two weeks has a range of 45 kilometres and some critical added features.
  • Pinaka’s new incarnation is one of the few examples of an indigenous Indian weapon system going through an evolutionary process.
  • Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE) and Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) were responsible for the design.

Qs. Which of the following statements are correct for Pinaka?

a. The Pinaka rocket system, named after Lord Shiva’s bow, is a multi-barrel rocket system.

b The system was developed in the 1980s to replace Russian-made Multi Barrel Rocket Launcher systems known as the ‘Grad,’ which are still in service by some regiments.

c. During the 1999 Kargil war, the Pinaka Mark-1 was first used on the battlefield.

d. It can fire a salvo of 12 rockets in 44 seconds.

A. a, b & c

B. a, b & d

C. a, c & d

D. All of the above

Ans: D

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Northeast opposes Hindi as a compulsory language


The Centre’s decision to make Hindi a compulsory language in schools throughout eight northeastern states has enraged several regional organisations.

  • The Indian government stipulated that Hindi will be made obligatory in the eight northeastern states up to Class ten. However, various organisations in the Northeast have voiced their opposition to the plan. 
  • Several south Indian states have also expressed displeasure with the national government’s move. Instead, these organisations promote a three-language approach: English, Hindi, and the indigenous tongue.
  •  Kothari Commission first proposed the three-language Formula in 1968.  

Qs. Match the following: 

Liat I
List IIConstitutional Provisions to languages
Article 350A i. Mother-tongue primary stage
Article 350Bii. Special Officer for linguistic minorities
Article 347 iii. The official language of the Union of India
Article 343iv. President power to recognise a language as an official language


A. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

B. a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

C. a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii

D. a-vi, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

Ans: C

State Energy and Climate Index (SECI)


The State Energy and Climate Index were launched by the NITI Aayog (SECI). It’s the first index designed to track state and local actions in the climate and energy sectors.

The index’s characteristics were developed with India’s climate change and renewable energy transition goals.

States and union territories have been divided into three groups based on SECI scores:

  • Front runners – Gujarat, Kerala, and Punjab, have been named the top three performing states in the SECI by the NITI Aayog.
  • Achievers – Goa, Tripura, and Manipur are the top three performers among minor states.
  • Aspirants – States such as Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, and Jharkhand were ranked last.

Qs. Which of the following Panchamrit is not included in India’s five nectar elements to cope with climate change at the COP-26 Glasgow summit?

A. By 2030, non-fossil installed power capacity will reach 500 GW.

B. By 2030, India will have met 50% of its electricity needs with renewable energy.

C. By 2030, India’s economy will have reduced its carbon intensity by less than 45%.

D. India will attain its Net-Zero goal by the year 2050.

Ans: D

  • By 2030, India will reduce the carbon intensity of its economy by less than 45% and by the year 2070 India will achieve the target of Net-zero.

Coastal Erosion


The Ministry of Earth Sciences notified the Lok Sabha that a significant portion of the 6,907.18 km long Indian mainland coastline is undergoing varying degrees of coastal erosion.

  • Around 34% of the coastline is eroding, 26% is accreting, and 40% is stable.
  • Between 1990 and 2018, West Bengal’s coast eroded along 60.5 per cent of its total length (323.07 km). Kerala (46.4%) and Tamil Nadu (42.7%) come in second and third, respectively.
  • The Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) had previously developed and published an atlas of Coastal Vulnerability Index (CVI) maps for India’s entire coastline.

Coastal erosion is the process by which local sea-level rise, strong wave action, and coastal flooding wear down or carry away rocks, soils, and/or sands along the coast.

Qs. Which of the following statements are incorrect for Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services?

A. INCOIS is a self-governing body that reports to the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).

B. It was founded in 1995 and is located in Hyderabad. 

C. It is a New Delhi-based Earth System Science Organization (ESSO).

D. The ESSO serves as an executive arm of the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) for policies and programmes.

Ans: B

  • INCOIS was established in 1999 to provide the best possible ocean information and advisory services to society, industry, government agencies and the scientific community through sustained ocean observations and constant improvement through systematic and focused research.

Geosynchronous Satellite GSLV-F10

Science & Technology

The failed Geosynchronous Satellite GSLV-F10/Earth Observation Satellites (EOS)-03 mission was investigated by a high-level panel, which advised changes to make the Cryogenic Upper Stage (CUS) more robust.

  • The Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) is projected to be ready in the second half of this year, including enhancements to its CUS.
  • The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) conceived, built, and operates the GSLV space launch vehicle, which is used to launch satellites and other space objects into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbits.
  • The GSLV follows a solid-fuel first stage before moving on to a liquid-fuel second stage. The second stage is followed by the CUS stage, which is the third step.
  • The key third stage of the rocket failed to ignite, resulting in the GSLV-failure. F10’s

Qs. Which of the following statements is incorrect for GSLV? 

A. GSLV-Mk III is a fourth-generation, three-stage launch vehicle with four liquid strap-ons. 

B. The rocket has three stages two solid motor strap-ons (S200), a liquid propellant core stage (L110) and a cryogenic stage (C-25).

C. The indigenously developed Cryogenic Upper Stage (CUS), forms the third stage of GSLV Mk II.

D. GSLV rockets can take 13,000-kg satellites to lower earth orbits.

Ans: D

  • GSLV can take 10,000-kg satellites to lower earth orbits.

Helina, an Anti-Tank Guided Missile (ATGM)


In Pokhran, India successfully tested Helina, an Anti-Tank Guided Missile (ATGM).

  • It is one of the world’s most advanced anti-tank weapons, according to the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
  • The test was part of the DRDO’s user validation testing for its third-generation ‘fire and forgot’ missiles.
  • The Defence Research and Development Laboratory (DRDL), Hyderabad, developed Helina as part of the DRDO’s Missiles and Strategic Systems (MSS) cluster.
  • Since 2018, successful user trials of the missile have been conducted.
  • It was intended and built for incorporation on the armed version of the ALH and has a maximum range of seven kilometres (Advanced Light Helicopter).

Qs. Match of the following.

List IAnti-tank MissilesList IIDesigned type
NAGi. Laser-guided, precision-guided munition
MPATGMii. Smart Stand-off Anti-Tank Missile 
SANTiii. Man-Portable Anti-Tank Guided Missile
ATGM for MBTiv. Third-generation fire-and-forget missile


A. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

B. a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

C. a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii

D. a-vi, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

Ans: D

CALM Systems

Science & Technology

The Indian Army has released a Request for Information (RFI) for the mechanised troops’ Canister Launched Anti-Armour Loiter Ammunition (CALM) System.

  • The Indian Army had previously published a request for information for delivering Articulated All-Terrain Vehicles to be used in Ladakh and Kutch.
  • The CALM System consists of a drone or a pre-loaded canister with loiter ammo. Loiter weapons combine the capabilities of a surface-to-air missile and a drone.
  • It can stay aloft for a long time over the area of action after being launched, and when a target is located, it can guide down to destroy it with the explosive payload it carries.

Qs. Which country’s drone is ‘Zala KYB-UAV’, a high-precision kamikaze drone?


B. Ukraine

C. Russia

D. Isreal

Ans: C

  • The Zala KYB-UAV, commonly known as the KUB-BLA (Cube), is a new loitering munition system designed and built by Zala Aero, a Kalashnikov Group affiliate. It was designed using the Russian armed forces’ combat experience in Syria between 2015 and 2018.

Jallala Bagh Massacre


The Prime Minister paid respects to those who died in the 1919 Jallianwala Bagh tragedy. He claimed that their unmatched bravery and sacrifice would continue to inspire future generations. The 103rd anniversary of the incident will be celebrated on April 13, 2022.

  • The Gujarat government commemorated the 100th anniversary of the Pal-Dadhvav massacre, calling it a “massacre bigger than Jallianwala Bagh.”
  • The Jallianwala Bagh massacre, also known as the Amritsar massacre, occurred on April 13, 1919. The Gurkha British Indian army executed hundreds of innocent people on the instructions of then-Anglo-Indian Brigadier R.E.H. Dyer.
  • These folks were quietly protesting the Rowlatt Act of 1919.

Qs. Which act of 1919 gave the government enormous powers to repress political activities?

A. Minto Morley Reforms

B. Charter Act

C. Rowlatt Act

D. Montague Chelmsford

Ans: C

Global Wind Report for 2022 


The Global Wind Energy Council released its Global Wind Report for 2022. (GWEC).

  • GWEC was founded in 2005 to create a credible and representative international forum for the whole wind energy sector.
  • Every year, global wind energy installations must treble from the 94 GW (Gigawatt) installed in 2021.
  • In 2021, new installations of 93.6 GW increased global cumulative wind energy capacity to 837 GW, a 12% year-on-year (YoY) increase.
  • If offshore wind energy generation is expanded significantly, carbon dioxide emissions might be reduced by 0.3-1.61 gigatonnes per year by 2050.

Qs. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. The National Wind-Solar Hybrid Policy of 2018 promotes extensive grid-connected wind-solar PV hybrid systems.

B. The National Offshore Wind Energy Policy of 2016 aims to develop offshore wind energy in the Indian Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ).

C. More than 1.4 GW of wind power in India was installed in 2021, surpassing the 1.1 GW installed the year before.

D. By 2022, the government hopes to have installed 5 GW of offshore capacity, with a goal of 30 GW by 2030.

Ans: B

  • The National Offshore wind energy policy was notified in October 2015 

India’s 2+2 Dialogue with the US


In Washington, DC, the fourth ‘2+2’ dialogue between India and the United States began. The External Affairs and Defense Ministers of India meet with their counterparts from the United States.

Key Points of the meet:

  • A bilateral space situational awareness agreement was inked between India and the United States.
  • Defense of the Inaugural Dialogue Between Artificial Intelligence and Humans
  • Cooperation in the Military Supply Chain

India’s oldest and most important 2+2 discussion partner is the United States.

The first 2+2 dialogue between the two countries took place during the Trump administration in 2018.

Qs. Which of the following statements are incorrect for the 2+2 Dialogue?

A. The 2+2 Ministerial is the two countries’ highest-level institutional framework.

B. It is a discussion format where defense/foreign ministers or secretaries meet with colleagues from other countries.

C. India holds 2+2 discussions with four critical strategic partners: the United States, Australia, Japan, and Russia.

D. India and the United States have inked four “foundational pacts” for deep military cooperation.

Ans: D

  • India and the US have signed a troika of “foundational pacts” for deep military cooperation: the Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA) in 2016, the Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA) after the first 2+2 dialogue in 2018, and the Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (BECA) in 2020.

Land Acquired by the CBA Act of 1957 


The policy for using land acquired under the Coal Bearing Areas (Acquisition & Development) Act, 1957 [CBA Act] has been approved by the Union Cabinet. The policy calls for the use of such land for the development and construction of coal and energy-related infrastructure.

The Provisions of the Proposed Policy are:

  • Provides Framework for Utilisation of Land
  • Coal India Ltd. (CIL) will Remain the Owner of the Land
  • Leasing of Land for Specified Period

The CBA Act allows for acquiring coal-bearing lands and their and clear vesting in government business. The policy that was authorised establishes a clear policy framework for the use of the following types of lands acquired under the CBA Act:

  • Lands that are no longer appropriate or economically viable for coal mining; or 
  • Land that has been reclaimed after coal has been mined out or de-coaled.

Qs. Which of the following statements are incorrect for CBA Act, 1957?

A. It includes the acquisition of land that contains or is expected to contain coal reserves and matters related to them.

B. Government companies are acquiring the land solely for coal mining and activities that are strictly ancillary to mining.

C. The Land Acquisition Act of 1884 is used to acquire land for additional purposes such as permanent infrastructure, offices, and residences.

D. Different Acts cannot be used to acquire mining and surface rights on the same piece of land.

Ans: C

  • The Land Acquisition Act of 1894 is used to acquire land for additional purposes such as permanent infrastructure, offices, and residences.

Mid-Day Meal scheme


Karnataka plans to offer eggs to schoolchildren as part of the Midday Meal Scheme (MDMS). MDMS is one of the world’s greatest efforts to improve school-aged children’s nutrition through hot cooked meals.

  • The Midday Meal Program is the world’s largest school feeding programme, serving students in government schools in grades 1 through 8.
  • The primary goal of this programme is to increase school enrollment.
  • Rs 4.97 per child per day (primary classes) and Rs 7.45 per child per day (upper primary) are shared 60:40 with states and UTs with legislatures and 90:10 with the Northeastern states, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, and Uttarakhand. At the same time, the Centre bears 100% of the costs in UTs without legislation.

Qs. Which of the following statements given below is correct?

a. India has made little progress in combating anaemia and childhood wasting, according to the Global Nutrition Report 2021.

b. India dropped to 101st place out of 116 countries in the Global Hunger Index 2021, down from 94th in 2020.

c. The National Food Security Act (NFSA) of 2013 makes the mid-day scheme a legal entitlement for all school-aged children in primary and upper primary courses.

d. The Mid-day scheme was renamed PM Poshan Shakti Nirman in 2020.

A. a, b & c

B. a, b & d

C. a, c & d

D. b, c & d

Ans: A

  • The current version of the programme, renamed PM Poshan Shakti Nirman or PM Poshan in 2021.

Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA)


The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has authorised the implementation of the redesigned Centrally Sponsored Scheme of Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) from April 1, 2022, to March 31, 2026. The scheme will now run until the end of the 15th Finance Commission’s tenure. The project aims to improve Panchayati Raj Institutions’ governance capacity (PRIs).

What is the RGSA (Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan)?

  • In 2018, the Cabinet approved the scheme for implementation from 2018-19 to 2021-22.
  • The Ministry of Panchayati Raj is in charge of implementation.
  • The key Central Components were Panchayat Incentivisation and the Mission Mode Project on e-Panchayat and other efforts at the Central level.
  • Its goals were to improve the governance capacities of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) to meet the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

Qs. Consider the following statements?

a. The Cabinet first approved the scheme in 2016, with plans to execute it from 2018-19 to 2020-21.

b. RGSA Vision is “Sabka Sath, Sabka Gaon, Sabka Vikas”.

c. This programme applies to all States and UTs in the country and rural local government organisations in non-Part IX territories.

d. The funding pattern for States is 60:40, except in the Northeast, Hilly States, and J&K, where the Central and State shares will be 90:10. 

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

A. Only a

B. Only b

C. a & c

D. a & d

Ans: A

Neptune – Anti-ship cruise missile

Science and Technology

Ukraine recently claimed that Neptune Anti-Ship Cruise Missiles had destroyed the Russian Black Sea Fleet Flagship ‘Moskva.’

  • The Neptune is a coastal anti-ship cruise missile with a range of 300 kilometres that can destroy navy vessels.
  • After six years of development, the missile system was admitted into the Ukrainian Defense Forces in March 2021.
  • The design of this missile is based on the Russian Kh-35 cruise missile, also known as the AS-20 Kayak by the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO).
  • The cruise missile strike included the use of TB-2 drones as decoys and additional tactics aimed at overwhelming the cruiser’s Air Defense systems.

Qs. Consider the following statements?

a. Moskva is a Ukrainian Navy guided-missile cruiser.

b. According to Russia, the Ukraine Black Sea Fleet Flagship ‘Moskva’ was allegedly damaged by Russian Neptune Anti-Ship Cruise Missiles.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

A. Only a

B. Only b

C. Both a & b

D. None of the above

Ans: D

Israel – New laser missile defence system


Israel has completed a successful test of a new laser missile defence system, intercepting mortars, rockets, and anti-tank missiles. With a 90% interception rate against incoming rocket fire, Israel’s Iron Dome defence system has been an enormous success.

  • The “Iron Beam,” an Israeli-made laser system, is intended to augment various aerial defence systems, including the more expensive rocket-intercepting devices.
  • The interceptions of the Iron Beam are silent and undetectable.
  • It employs a Directed-Energy (DE) weapon system and can provide an effective aerial defence.
  • A DE weapon is a system that uses DE to disable, damage, or destroy opposing equipment, facilities, and personnel director.

Qs. Which country developed the “Iron Beam” laser system to augment a range of aerial defence systems?

A. Ukraine

B. Russia

C. China

D. Israel

Ans: D

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Amathusia Philippus

Science & Technology

The rare butterfly Palmking (Amathusia Philippus) was recently discovered in Tamil Nadu for the first time. 

  • It is the 321st butterfly species in Tamil Nadu, out of 1,500 species in India. This butterfly can be found in India, Myanmar, Indochina, Peninsular Malaysia, and Thailand, among other places.
  • It’s found in the Philippines and the Indonesian archipelago.
  • Palmking sightings have been reported in India’s Arippa, Shendurney, and Periyar Tiger Reserve forests in the southern Western Ghats.

Qs. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. In 1895, British scientist H.S.Ferguson discovered Palmking in South India.

B. It is a member of the Nymphalidae family and feeds on palm, coconut, and calamus plants.

C. Its brown coloration and dark bands distinguish the butterfly, and it is said to be reclusive, spending most of its time in the shadow.

D. It isn’t easy to notice because its wood colour blends well, and it rarely opens its wings.

Ans: A

  • Palmking was first recorded in South India by British scientist H.S.Ferguson in 1891. More than a Century later, it was rediscovered in 2007.

Bernardinelli-Bernstein comet

Science & Technology

The Hubble Space Telescope of the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) recently confirmed that the massive Bernardinelli-Bernstein comet is the largest frozen comet nucleus ever seen by scientists.

  • The nucleus is known as C/2014 UN271, and it has a diameter of around 129 kilometres.
  • The nucleus is roughly 50 times larger than the nuclei of most known comets, with a mass of around 500 trillion tonnes.

Qs. Which of the following statements are correct for Bernardinelli-Bernstein Comet?

a. Astronomers Pedro Bernardinelli and Gary Bernstein discovered the comet.

b. It was discovered in November 2010.

c. The Oort Cloud is a far-flung region of the solar system where most comets are thought to originate.

d. The Bernardinelli-Berstein comet has an estimated temperature of minus 348 degrees Fahrenheit and has a 3-million-year elliptical orbit.

A. a, b & c

B. a, b & d

C. b, c & d

D. All of the above

Ans: D

The USA to designating Russia ‘State Sponsor Of Terrorism’ Amid Moscow-Kyiv War in the news


The US is “taking a close look at” classifying Russia as a “state supporter of terrorism.”

On February 24, Russia launched a so-called “special” military operation in Ukraine, which resulted in the widespread destruction of Ukrainian cities and tens of thousands of casualties on both sides.

According to the USA State Department, Russia has “repeatedly provided support for acts of international terrorism.” 

Russia is the fifth country to be added to the list.

The other four countries on the list of state sponsors of terrorism are

  • Syria (Designated on December 29 1979)
  • Iran (Designated on January 19 1984),
  • North Korea (Designated on November 20 2017).

Qs. Which of the following statements are correct for Terrorist Designation by the USA?

a. The Secretary of State of the United States has the authority to designate countries.

b. “State Sponsors of Terrorism” are countries that have repeatedly supplied support for acts of international terrorism.

c. Restrictions on US foreign assistance, a ban on defence exports and sales, certain controls over dual-use item exports, and other limits are among the restrictions.

d. Sanctions can also be imposed on countries and individuals who conduct specific types of business with designated countries.

A. a, b & c

B. a, b & d

C. a, c & d

D. All of the above

Ans : D

National Cyber Security Strategy


The Centre has yet to adopt the National Cyber Security Strategy, which has been in the works since 2020, despite increasing cyberattacks on India’s networks.

  • The Data Security Council of India (DSCI), led by Lt General Rajesh Pant, developed the National Cyber Security Strategy in 2020. 
  • The research focused on 21 areas to ensure that India’s cyberspace is safe, secure, trustworthy, resilient, and dynamic.
  • Despite an uptick in cyberattacks on India’s networks, the government has yet to implement the National Cyber Security Strategy.
  • According to the Palo Alto Networks 2021 study, Maharashtra was India’s most targeted state, with 42% of all ransomware attacks.
  • According to the research, India is one of the most economically lucrative regions for hacker groups
  • In 2021, one out of every four Indian businesses was hit by ransomware, which is higher than the global average of 21%.

Qs. Which Indian state, according to Palo Alto Networks’ 2021 report, is responsible for 42% of all ransomware attacks?

A. Karnataka

B. Punjab

C. Maharastra

D. Delhi

Ans: C

The UDAN Scheme has received an award for excellence


The flagship Regional Connectivity Scheme UDAN (UdeDeshkaAamNagrik) of the Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA) has been nominated for the Prime Minister’s Award for Excellence in Public Administration 2020 in the category “Innovation (General) – Central.”

  • The Government of India created this award to honour, recognize, and reward remarkable and innovative efforts by State/Government Districts and Organizations. 
  • The prize includes a trophy, a scroll, and a cash prize of Rs 10 lakhs, presented to the Ministry of Civil Aviation on April 21st, Civil Service Day. 
  • On “Civil Service Day,” the Government of India is hosting a special event at Vigyan Bhawan.
  • The Ministry of Civil Aviation intends to build 100 new airports in India by 2024 and 1,000 new routes under the UDAN Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS) by 2026.

Qs. Which of the following statements are correct for the UDAN scheme?

a. The UDAN plan, which began in 2016, intends to implement the vision of ‘UdeDeshkaAamNagri.’ 

b. In 2016, the Government of Civil Aviation was chosen as the best central ministry tableau for Republic Day 2022.

c. The programme resulted in a 5% increase in the domestic passenger share of non-metro airports.

d. The initiative aims to improve aviation infrastructure and air connectivity in tier II and III cities.

A. a, b & c

B. a, b & d

C. a, c & d

D. All of the above

Ans: D

Scheme for the Remission of Duties and Taxes on Export Products


According to the Federation of Indian Export Organisations (FIEO) President A Sakthivel, the government’s move to eliminate customs duty on cotton imports will help promote exports of textile value-added products.

  • Iron and steel, chemicals, and medicines were kept out of the government’s Remission of Duties and Taxes on Export Products (RoDTEP) scheme.
  • These industries were left out of the plan because iron and steel were “already growing,” and the pharmaceutical industry’s sales had expanded as a result of the epidemic.
  • The RoDTEP system would return to exporters the embedded central, state, and municipal tariffs or taxes that have previously gone unrefunded, putting India’s exports at a disadvantage.

Qs. Which of the following statements are correct for RoDTEP Scheme?

a. The RoDTEP plan took effect in January 2021 as a substitute for the Merchandise Export from India Scheme (MEIS).

b. The MEIS scheme offered additional advantages ranging from 2% to 7% on the value of eligible exporters’ freight on board (FOB).

c. The Rebate of State and Central Levies and Taxes (RoSCTL) Scheme has been announced specifically for garment exporters.

A. a & b

B. a & c

C. a & c

D. All of the above

Ans: D

Extinction threat to Vaquita porpoise

Science & Technology

The Vaquita porpoise, which can be found in the Gulf of California in Mexico, is on the verge of extinction, according to the United States Commission for Environmental Cooperation (CEC) on April 11, 2022.

  • According to the Report on employing expert elicitation to estimate total unique vaquitas and calves in the Zero Tolerance Area with suggestions for future study the effort, the species’ population has decreased by 98% in two decades.
  • According to CEC, there were around 570 creatures documented in 1999 and only 10 animals in 2019.
  • The body has advised that a factual record be created to investigate the reasons that have contributed to the species’ near-extinction.
  • For decades, the vaquita population has been in steep decline, which has recently been hastened by illegal gill-net fishing for the fragile totoaba, a vast fish prized for its swim bladder.
  • The little mammal is regularly trapped in fixed fishing nets (gill-nets) as a by-catch.

Qs. Which of the following statement is incorrect for Vaquita Porpoise?

A. It is the world’s smallest cetacean, meaning “little cow” in Spanish.

B. It is found only in the northern Gulf of California (Sea of Cortez) in Mexico. 

C. Most commonly seen in shallow waters up to 30 metres deep.

D. A dark ring around the eyes, as well as a proportionally large dorsal fin, are its most noticeable features.

Ans: C

  • Most commonly seen in shallow waters up to 50 metres deep.

The Global Centre for Traditional Medicine at Gujarat

Science & Technology

Gujarat, Jamnagar is a home for the first-of-its-kind World Health Organization (WHO) Global Centre for Traditional Medicine (GCTM).

  • It’s a one-of-a-kind effort to build long-term relationships, increase exports, and maintain a healthy ecology.
  • The Global Ayush Investment and Innovation Summit is the following event to raise investments and showcase advances in traditional medicine.
  • In the field of traditional medicine, the Ministry of AYUSH and the WHO signed a Project Collaboration Agreement (PCA) in 2016.
  • The goal was to establish standards for traditional medicine practitioners’ training in yoga, Ayurveda, Unani, and Panchakarma.

Qs. The WHO Global Centre for Traditional Medicine (GCTM) is located in which Indian state?

A. Maharashtra

B. Gujarat

C. Punjab

D. Jharkhand

Ans: B

Export Promotion Capital Goods Scheme


The Ministry of Commerce and Industry has relaxed various procedures under the Export Promotion Capital Goods (EPCG) scheme to reduce compliance requirements and facilitate ease of doing business.

  • Under the scheme, imports of capital goods are allowed duty-free, subject to an export obligation.
  • Under the scheme, the authorisation holder (or exporter) has to export finished goods worth six times the actual duty saved in six years.
  • The Export Promotion Capital Goods (EPCG) scheme aims to facilitate the import of capital goods for producing quality goods and services and enhance India’s manufacturing competitiveness.

Qs. Which of the following are not included in the new norms of the EPCG Scheme?

A. Capital items can be imported duty-as long as they are exported.

B. Under the system, the authorisation holder (or exporter) must export finished items worth six times the actual tariff saved in six years.

C. Requests for export obligation extensions shall be made within six months of the expiration date, rather than the previous 70-day limit.

D. The block-wise export obligation extensions requests must be made within six months of the expiration date.

Ans: C

  • Requests for export obligation extension should be made within six months of expiry instead of the earlier prescribed period of 90 days. However, applications made after six months and up to six years are subject to a late fee of Rs 10,000 per authorisation.

Parliamentary Panel for MSME Finances


The Parliamentary Standing Committee on Finance has proposed that the Udyam portal be developed into a one-stop central data repository for the MSME sector by integrating it with other databases like CIBIL data, utility bill data, etc.

  • The Parliamentary Standing Committee on Finance has proposed several steps to improve credit flow to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) sector.
  • According to official data, less than 40% of the 6.34 crore MSMEs borrow from the formal banking system, highlighting the need to formalise the credit ecosystem for MSMEs.
  • The loan gap in the MSME sector is projected to be between Rs. 20 and Rs. 25 lakh crore.
  • The National Sample Survey Office (NSSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, performed the previous MSME survey six years ago, whereas the government changed the MSME definition in 2020.

Qs. Which portal is developed as a one-stop central data repository for the MSME sector?

A. Madad

B. Udyam 



Ans: B

Jerusalem’s al-Aqsa Mosque in news


Tensions between Palestinians and Israeli police boiled up again at Jerusalem’s al-Aqsa Mosque, resulting in skirmishes that left 17 Palestinians injured. The uprising occurred two days after 152 Palestinians were injured in clashes with Israeli riot police on April 17th, 2022.

  • The Israeli-Palestinian conflict has been centred on Jerusalem was considered an international metropolis in the initial 1947 United Nations (UN) partition plan.
  • The Israelis took the western half of the city in the 1948 Arab-Israel war, while Jordan acquired the eastern half, including the Old City, Haram al-Sharif.
  • Following the 1967 Six-Day War, an armed confrontation between Israel and a coalition of Arab states led by Jordan, Syria, and Egypt, Jordan’s Waqf Ministry, which had previously overseen the al-Aqsa Mosque, ceased to do so.
  • During the 1967 Six-Day War, Israel conquered East Jerusalem from Jordan and later annexed it.

Qs. The Al-Aqsa Mosque is located in which of the following country?

A. Jerusalem

B. Israel

C. Palestine

D. Egypt

Ans: A

Colombo Security Conclave on Investigation of Terrorism Cases


The National Investigation Agency of India hosted the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) Virtual Conference.

On April 19, 2022, the National Investigation Agency of India hosted the Colombo Security Conclave Virtual Conference on Sharing of Experiences in Terrorism Case Investigation. The virtual conference drew panellists and participants from India, the Maldives, Mauritius, Sri Lanka, and Bangladesh.

  • The conference was one of the engagement activities mentioned in the Colombo Security Conclave’s Roadmap for Cooperation and Activities for 2022-23, which was agreed upon by member countries during the 5th NSA level Meeting on March 9-10, 2022, in the Maldives.
  • The attendees reviewed various terrorist-related difficulties in their respective nations and offered their experiences with terrorism prosecution, foreign fighter methods, and preventing the misuse of the internet and social media.

Qs. Which of the given assertions about the Colombo Security Conclave is correct?

a. India, Sri Lanka, and the Maldives founded the CSC in 2011 as a trilateral maritime security association.

b. At the fifth conference of national security advisers, Mauritius was welcomed as the fourth member.

c. Bangladesh and Seychelles were invited to participate as observers and have been invited to join the group.

d. CSC identified Maritime Safety and Countering Terrorism are the key areas of cooperation to enhance and strengthen regional security.

A. a, b & c

B. a, b & d

C. a, c & d

D. All of the above

Ans: D

Draft Protection and Enforcement of interests in Aircraft objects Bill 2022


The Ministry of Civil Aviation released the Bill when numerous smaller airlines had been denied jets for rent. 

  • The proposed regulation will assist international aircraft leasing corporations in repossessing and transferring planes out of India in a financial disagreement with an Indian airline.
  • The new legislation comes after India ratified the Cape Town Convention more than 14 years ago.
  • The bill puts the terms of the Convention on International Interests in Mobile Equipment and Protocol on Matters Specific to Aircraft Equipment, which were approved in 2001 during a meeting in Cape Town.

Qs. Which of the following statements are correct for the Cape Town Convention and Protocol?

a. The Convention on International Interests in Mobile Equipment was concluded in Cape Town on 16th November 2001. 

b. It was adopted under the joint auspices of the International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) and the International Institute for the Unification of Private Law (UNIDROIT).

c. ICAO is a United Nations (UN) specialized agency, established in 1944, India being it member.

A. a & b

B. a & c

C. b & c

D. All of the above

Ans: D

Extension of NAGA Ceasefire agreement


The ceasefire agreements between the Central government and three Naga tribes, signed on April 19, 2022, have been extended by a year.

  • National Socialist Council of Nagaland-NK (NSCN-NK), National Socialist Council of Nagaland-Reformation (NSCN-R), and National Socialist Council of Nagaland-K-Khango are some of the Naga organisations (NSCN-K-Khango).
  • This deal is a significant step forward in the Naga peace process and aligns with Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s aim of an “insurgency-free, thriving North East.”
  • The Centre and the National Socialist Council of Nagaland (K) Niki Group signed a one-year ceasefire deal in September 2021.

Qs. What is the extension period of the peace agreement between the Central and three Naga tribes effect from April 28, 2022?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Ans: D 

  • The Centre and the National Socialist Council of Nagaland (K) Niki Group signed a one-year ceasefire deal in September 2021. In August 2015, the Centre and the NSCN (IM) signed a “Framework Agreement.”

Health star rating (HSR) on packaged foods implemented by Food Safety and Standards Authority of India’s (FSSAI’s) 


The “health star rating” system that the Food Safety Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) proposes to implement to help customers limit their intake of unhealthy foods is “not evidence-based” and has failed to change buyer behaviour, according to 40 worldwide health experts.

  • The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is an independent statutory organisation established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006. (FSS Act).
  • Food firms like Hindustan Unilever, ITC, Britannia, Nestle India, and Amul will be affected by the FSSAI’s decision.

Qs. Consider the following statements:

a. An expert committee formed by the FSSAI in 2011 first suggested front of package labelling (FOPL) in 2014.

b. The Food Safety Standards (Labelling and Display) Regulations were published as a draught notification by the FSSAI in 2019.

c. The FSSAI delinked FOPL from general labelling standards in December of 2019.

d. The FSSAI decided to adopt the “health-star rating system” in its draught Front of Package Labeling regulations on February 15, 2022.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. a, b & c

B. a, b & d

C. a, c & d

D. All of the above

Ans: D

Blue blob

Science & Technology

According to new research, the “Blue blob,” a region of cooling water in the North Atlantic Ocean near Iceland, may have temporarily delayed the melting of Arctic sea ice.

  • The cold patch was particularly noticeable in the winter of 2014-2015 when the sea surface temperature was 1.4 degrees Celsius below usual.
  • The Arctic is warming four times faster than the rest of the world. Between 1995 and 2010, Iceland’s glaciers shrank by 11 billion tonnes of ice every year.
  • The Blue Blob has been connected to milder air temperatures over Iceland’s glaciers and cooler waters since 2011. 
  • Prior to the Blue Blob, the Atlantic Warming Hole, a long-term cooling trend in the same region, lowered sea surface temperatures by around 0.4 to 0.8 degrees Celsius during the last century.

Qs. What is ‘Blue Blob’ located south of Iceland and Greenland?

A. Ice patch

B. Cold Patch

C. Hot Patch

D. Ice wind

Ans: B

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Pre-eruption warning signals at Whakaari White Island

Science & Technology

According to new research, pre-eruption warning signals were discovered at Whakaari White Island and other active volcanoes in New Zealand.

As per the new research – 

  • Every volcano is unique: some have crater lakes, while others are “dry,” they contain a variety of magmas, and they rise to varying elevations.
  • Despite these variations, New Zealand volcanoes like Whakaari, Ruapehu, and Tongariro may erupt by similar processes in the shallow subsurface beneath their craters.
  • Machine learning was used to filter through 40 years of seismic data from New Zealand volcanoes and three others worldwide, listening for frequencies that trace the depth where gas, magma, or water is moving or building up, according to the new study.

Qs. Which of the following statements are correct for Whakaari/White Island?

a. The island is an active volcano located in the Bay of Plenty, 43 miles west of Cape Runaway in New Zealand’s eastern North Island.

b. At the northern end of the Taupo-Rotorua Volcanic Zone, it is the summit of a submarine vent.

c. Mount Gisborne, with a total land area of around 1,000 acres, rises to 1,053 feet.

d. Capt. James Cook discovered and named the island in 1769.

A. a, b & c

B. a, b & d

C. a, c & d

D. All of the above

Ans: D

Smart Cities Mission

Science & Technology

Under the Smart Cities Mission, the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs has announced that all 100 smart cities will have Integrated Command and Control Centers (ICCCs) (SCM).

  • These ICCCs are located throughout the states that have created Smart Cities, with Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Gujarat leading the way in terms of total ICCCs established.
  • The ICCC will serve as the city’s “nerve centre” for operations management.
  • ICCCs help the city’s municipal corporation manage safety and surveillance by providing innovative solutions.
  • The facilities feature video walls for real-time monitoring, an emergency response system, key operations planning, and manual maintenance 24 hours a day, seven days a week.
  • The ICCCs are now connected to the Ministry of Home Affairs’ CCTNS (Crime and Criminal Tracking Networks and Systems) network.

Qs. Consider the following statements?

a. The Smart Cities Mission is a centrally funded initiative established in June 2013 to transform 100 cities.

b. The implementation period for SCM has been extended till June 2023.

c. Over 140 public-private partnerships, 340 “smart roads,” 78 “vibrant public places,” 118 “smart water” projects, and over 63 solar projects have been covered by the SCM so far.

d. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

A. Only a

B. Only b

C. Only c

D. All of the above

Ans: B

IPPB launches Fincluvation


The India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) launched the Fincluvation Platform to promote innovative solutions with fintech firms to help the underprivileged and unserved population gain access to financial services.

  • Fincluvation will be an ongoing venue for IPPB to collaborate with start-ups to develop equitable financial solutions.
  • The IPPB and the Department of Post (DoP) serve about 430 million consumers through post offices and at their doorsteps, with over 4,00,000 Post Office staff and Gramin Dak Sevaks, making it one of the world’s largest and most trusted postal networks.
  • It is a first in the industry initiative to construct a robust platform to engage the start-up community toward developing relevant financial products that promote financial inclusion.

Qs. Which powerful platform was created to mobilize the start-up community towards building meaningful financial products?

A. Inclusion

B. Fincluvation

C. Fintech

D. Digital India

Ans: B

Special Purpose Acquisition Company (SPAC)


The government is considering enacting a regulatory framework for Special Purpose Acquisition Companies (SPAC) in the statutes in response to the recent recommendations of the Company Law Committee 2022 to facilitate the possible listing of Indian companies in the country through this route.

What were the Company Law Committee’s 2022 Recommendations?

  • It proposes enacting an enabling framework under the Companies Act, 2013 to recognise SPACs and empower entrepreneurs to list SPACs established in India on domestic and international exchanges.
  • To match SPACs with the Act’s current structure, the Committee has also proposed that shareholders who disagree with the target company’s choice be given an exit option.
  • It also highlights the necessity to appropriately alter regulations relating to cutting off companies in their application to SPACs, given that they do not have their own running business.

Qs. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. A Special Purpose Acquisition Company (SPAC) is a company founded only to raise money through an Initial Public Offering (IPO.

b. A “blank check company,” or a shell corporation established on a stock market to acquire a private company, is another name.

Mark your answer as per the codes provided below:

A. Only a

B. Only b

C. Both a & b

D. None of the above

Ans: C

National Panchayati Raj Day


On April 24, 2022, India celebrates the 12th National Panchayati Raj Day.

On this day, the Prime Minister launched the SWAMITVA (Survey of Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas) initiative, which will see e-property cards distributed.

What is the significance of National Panchayati Raj Day?

  • In 2010, the inaugural National Panchayati Raj Day was observed. Since then, India has commemorated National Panchayati Raj Day on April 24. 
  • The 73rd amendment to the United States Constitution was ratified in 1992.

Qs. Consider the following statements.

a. Part X, titled “The Panchayats,” was inserted by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment.

b. The Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR) has created eGramSwaraj, a user-friendly web-based site, to strengthen e-Governance in Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs).

c. Except, in states with populations under 20 lakhs, panchayats have a three-tier structure (Article 243B).

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

A. Only a

B. Only b

C. Only c

D. All of the above

Ans: A

  • The 73rd Constitutional Amendment added Part IX titled “The Panchayats”.

Anti Defection Law


The Vice-President has stated that the time has come to update the country’s anti-defection legislation to close existing loopholes.

What is the definition of anti-defection legislation?

  • Individual Members of Parliament (MPs)/MLAs who desert from one party to another are subject to the anti-defection law.
  • In 1985, it was added to the Constitution as the Tenth Schedule. Its goal was to keep governments stable by deterring MPs from switching parties.
  • The Anti-Defection Act, often known as the Tenth Schedule, was included in the Constitution through the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985.

Qs. Which of the followings are not the Grounds for Disqualification of anti-Defection Law?

A. If an elected official willingly withdraws from a political party.

B. His party or the authorised person should not excuse his abstention from voting within 15 days of the incident as a condition of his disqualification.

C. If a nominated member joins a political party after the six months have expired.

D. If a nominated member abstains from joining another political party after the eight months have expired.

Ans: D

Seafloor Spreading


According to a study that looked at data from the last 19 million years, worldwide seafloor spreading rates have reduced by about 35%.

What are the Study’s Highlights?

  • Researchers chose 18 of the world’s greatest spreading ridges for their investigation (mid-ocean ridges).
  • A ridge, also known as a mountain ridge, is a geographic feature of a series of mountains or hills that form a continuously raised crest over a long distance.
  • They calculated how much marine crust has formed over the last 19 million years by analysing magnetic records in rocks on the oceanic crust.

Qs. Which of the following statement is incorrect for Seafloor Spreading?

A. In 1950, American geophysicist Harry H. Hess suggested the seafloor spreading concept.

B. The process of magma welling up in the rift as the old crust forces itself in opposite directions is known as seafloor spreading.

C. In the Ring of Fire, the East Pacific Rise is a key region of seafloor spreading.

D. It is located on the divergent boundary of the Pacific Plate, the Cocos Plate, the Nazca Plate, the North-American Plate, and the Antarctic Plate.

Ans: D

  • The seafloor spreading hypothesis was proposed by the American geophysicist Harry H. Hess in 1960.

Blue Straggler Stars

Science & Technology

Scientists at the Indian Institute of Astrophysics in Bengaluru recently discovered confirmation for one theory about the Blue Straggler Star’s peculiarities.

  • The researchers used the observations of the UVIT instrument (Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope) of Astrosat, India’s first science observatory in orbit.
  • Indian researchers provided a proposal for the evolution of blue straggler stars in September 2021.

Qs. Consider the following statements?

a. Blue Straggler Stars are big, hot, blue stars that follow a divergent evolutionary path than the typical.

b. In 1952-53, astronomer Allan Sandage of the Carnegie Observatories in Pasadena, California, found blue stragglers in the globular cluster M3.

c. Most of them are at least a few thousand light-years away from the sun and are at least 12 billion years old.

d. Omega Centauri is the Milky Way’s largest and brightest globular.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

A. a, b & c

B. a, b & d

C. a, c & d

D. All of the above 

Ans: D

International Religiousdom Report 2022


The United States Commission on International Religiousdom (USCIRF) has recommended that India be added to a list of countries of particular concern (CPCs) for the worst breaches of religiousdoms in 2021.

In 2021, the US State Department issued a scathing and robust assessment of India’s human rights.

The primary focus of the report is on two groups of countries:

  • Country of Particular Concern (CPC): It is a designation made by the US Secretary of State for a country that has committed serious abuses of religiousdom in violation of the International Religiousdom Act (IRFA) (International Religiousdom Act of 1998).
  • Special Watch List: A country on the CPC’s “Special Watch List” does not match all of the CPC’s requirements yet engages in or tolerates grave religiousdom abuses.

The report also includes USCIRF’s recommendations for violent nonstate actors to be designated as Entities of Particular Concern (EPCs) by the US State Department under the International Review of Financial Analysis (IRFA).

Qs. Which are the countries other than India recommended for the CPC designation?

A. Afghanistan – Egypt – Syria – Vietnam

B. Afghanistan – Turkey – Egypt – Vietnam

C. Afghanistan – Turkey – Syria – Vietnam

D. Afghanistan – Nigeria – Syria – Vietnam

Ans: D

  • Other than India, countries recommended for the CPC designation are Afghanistan, Nigeria, Syria, and Vietnam.

World Malaria Day 2022


On April 25th, World Malaria Day is commemorated to raise awareness about the global fight to control and eventually eradicate malaria.

“Harness innovation to reduce the malaria disease burden and save lives” is the theme for 2022. 

  • Malaria is a life-threatening blood disease spread by mosquitos that are caused by plasmodium parasites. 
  • The parasites are transferred by female Anopheles mosquitoes that have been infected.
  • GlaxoSmithKline (GSK) developed it, and the European Medicines Agency authorised it in 2015.
  • It was first held in 2008.
  • It was developed from Africa Malaria Day, which was an event that had been observed since 2001 by African governments.

Qs. Which of the following statements are correct for the E-2025 Initiative?

a. WHO announced the E-2020 programme in 2017 to help a group of nations reach zero indigenous malaria infections by 2020.

b. There are 21 countries in five regions that have been identified as having the capacity to eliminate malaria.

c. The study ‘Zeroing in on Malaria Elimination’ highlights WHO’s E-2020 initiative’s achievements.

d. WHO and its partners will provide technical and on-the-ground assistance to the E-2025 countries.


A. a, b & c

B. a, b & d

C. b, c & d

D. All of the above

Ans: D

91st Amendment & Ceiling on Cabinet


The High Court of Bombay has commented, according to Pratap Singh Rane, a six-time Chief Minister of Goa and a legislator for 50 years, that disputed arguments have been submitted in a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) challenging the “lifetime status of the rank of Cabinet minister.”

According to the PIL, Goa has a 12-member Cabinet, and conferring Cabinet status to Rane brings the total number of Cabinet levels to 13, which exceeds the constitutional limit of 13.

  • The Indian Constitution’s 91st Amendment) Act, 2003 established this limit.
  • The Constitution (91st Amendment) Act of 2003 added clause 1A to Article 164, which states that “the total number of Ministers in the Council of Ministers in a State, including the Chief Minister, shall not exceed 15% of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of such State.”

Qs. Which of the following statement is incorrect for Public Interest Litigation?

A. Public interest Litigation (PIL) means litigation filed in a court of law.

B. It is the power given to the public by courts through judicial activism.

C. The era of the PIL movement was heralded by Justice P.N. Bhagawati in the case of S.P. Gupta vs. Union of India 1983.

D. The Writ Jurisdiction of the High Courts (under article 226) or the Supreme Court (under Article 32).

Ans: C

  • The era of the PIL movement was heralded by Justice P.N. Bhagawati in the case of S.P. Gupta vs. Union of India 1983.

Perseverance Rover Captures Eclipse on Mars

Science & Technology

The Perseverance Rover of NASA (National Aeronautics and Space Administration) recently captured a solar eclipse on Mars.

  • Perseverance Phobos, one of Mars’ two moons, was captured by the Mars rover under an eclipse. Phobos is slowly approaching Mars, and they will collide millions of years from now.
  • These findings will aid scientists in better understanding the moon’s orbit and how its gravity affects the Martian surface, ultimately altering the planet’s crust and mantle.

Qs. Which of the following statements are correct for Perseverance Rover?

a. It’s the most complex, expensive, and sophisticated mobile laboratory dispatched to the Red Planet.

b. It serves as the focal point of NASA’s Mars 2020 mission.

c. Perseverance’s Power Source is a Multi-Mission Radioisotope Thermoelectric Generator (MMRTG).

d. Its main goal is to find evidence of ancient microbial life.


A. a, b & c

B. a, b & c

C. a, b & c

D. All of the above

Ans: D

Section 144 CrPC


Uttarakhand’s Haridwar district administration has issued prohibitory orders near Roorkee under Section 144 of the Code Of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973.

What is Section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code?

  • This law allows a magistrate in any Indian state or union territory to issue an order barring a group of four or more individuals from congregating in a specific area.
  • It is applied in circumstances of immediate nuisance or suspected danger of an incident that could create problems or harm to human life or property.
  • This order might be issued against a specific person or the broader public.

Qs. Consider the following statement.

a. Section 144 prohibits the gathering of four or more people in the concerned area, while during curfew people are instructed to stay indoors for a particular period.

b. The Supreme Court held that “no democracy can exist if ‘public order’ isly allowed to be disturbed by a section of the citizens” in Dr Ram Manohar Lohiya case 1967.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

A. Only a

B. Only b

C. Both a & b

D. None of the above

Ans: C

India’s Labour Force Participation Rate


According to recent data from the Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE), India’s labour force participation rate (LFPR) has dropped to under 40% from 47% in 2016.

This indicates that more than half of India’s working-age population (15 years and older) is opting out of the labour market, but the number of persons opting out is growing.

The Government takes the different initiatives for Unemployment in India are:

  • Support for Marginalized Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise (SMILE)
  • PM-DAKSH (Pradhan Mantri Dakshta Aur Kushalta Sampann Hitgrahi)
  • Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)
  • Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)
  • Start Up India Scheme

Qs. Which of the following statement is incorrect for India’s labor force participation rate (LFPR) by CMIE? 

A. The labor force consists of people who are 15 years or older.

B. In India,  LFPR has been sliding over the last 10 years and has shrunk from 37% in 2016 to just 30% as of December 2021.

C. As of December 2021, while the male LFPR was 67.4%, the female LFPR was as low as 9.4%.

D. In India, the LFPR is not only lower than in the rest of the world but also falling.

Ans: B

  • In India, it has been sliding over the last 10 years and has shrunk from 47% in 2016 to just 40% as of December 2021.

First Human Case of H3N8 Bird Flu


According to the National Health Commission (NHC), a four-year-old kid was found dead in China. After acquiring multiple symptoms, including fever, a four-year-old kid was discovered to be infected with the H3N8 strain of Bird Flu, according to China’s National Health Commission (NHC).

  • Horses, dogs, birds, and seals have all been found to carry the H3N8 form in the past. However, no human cases of H3N8 have been reported prior to this.
  • After acquiring many symptoms, including fever, it was discovered to be infected with the H3N8 strain of Bird Flu.

Qs. Consider the following statement.

a. Influenza A and B are the two types of influenza that cause epidemic seasonal infections nearly every year.

b. Type A viruses are classified based on two proteins on their surfaces – Hemagglutinin (HA) and Neuraminidase (NA).

c. Influenza B mainly occurs in humans, but has been known to also occur in dogs and pigs.

d. Influenza C is found mainly in cattle. It’s not known to infect or cause illness in humans yet.

Which of the given statement is/are incorrect?

A. a & b

B. a & c

C. b & c

D. c & d

Ans: D

Kwar Hydroelectric Project


The 540-megawatt Kwar hydropower project on the Chenab in Jammu and Kashmir’s Kishtwar region has been approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA).

What is the Kwar Project, and what does it entail?

  • This Project, which is part of the Indus basin, is one of at least four planned in the district, including the 1,000 MW Pakal Dul hydroelectric project and the 624 MW run-of-river Kiru hydroelectric project.
  • In a 90% reliable year, the Project is estimated to produce 1975.54 million units.
  • Approximately 2,500 people would be employed directly and indirectly due to the Project’s construction activities.

Qs. How many rivers in the Indus basin flow through India and into Pakistan under the Indus Water Treaty (IWT) of 1960?

A. 4

B. 5

C. 6

D. 8

Ans: C

  • The Indus Water Treaty (IWT) between India and Pakistan, signed in 1960, divides the waters of six Indus basin rivers that flow through India and into Pakistan. India has entire control over the Sutlej, Beas, and Ravi rivers in the east, while Pakistan controls the Chenab, Jhelum, and Indus rivers in the west.

Museums Grant Scheme


The Ministry of Culture and Tourism has given Rs 3.75 crore to the Rs 5-crore project in Eluru, Andhra Pradesh, under the ‘Upgradation of Museums Scheme’ as part of the Museums Grant Scheme. 

What is the Museums Grant Scheme, exactly?

  • The programme started in 2013.
  • State governments, societies, autonomous entities, local bodies, and trusts registered under the Societies Act 1860 are eligible for financial help under the Scheme to establish new museums.
  • Its goal is to update and strengthen existing museums at the regional, state, and district levels.
  • Each year, the project seeks to build at least one Central / State Government Museum in the State Capital.

Qs. Which software is being used for digitising archaeological site museums under the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)?





Ans: A

  • JATAN is a virtual museum builder programme that allows Indian institutions to create digital collection management systems and is used in numerous national museums around the country. Its goal is to provide a digital record of all museum objects in order to aid scholars, curators, and others interested in the topic.

Anti-Ship Version of Brahmos Missile


The Indian Navy and the Andaman and Nicobar Command have successfully test-fired an anti-ship version of the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile.

  • The Andaman and Nicobar Command is the Indian military’s only tri-service command.
  • BrahMos collaborates between India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Russia’s NPOM.
  • The rivers Brahmaputra and Moskva are dubbed BrahMos.
  • It’s a two-stage missile (first stage solid propellant engine, second-stage liquid ramjet).

Qs. Which of the following statements are correct for the Defense Equipment India procured from Russia?

a. The P75-I project calls for six conventional submarines propelled by air-independent propulsion (AIP).

b. The Navy has four Russian Kashin class guided-missile destroyers and six Russian Talwar class frigates.

c. INS Vikramaditya, India’s only aircraft carrier, is a Soviet-built Kiev-class vessel that entered service with the Indian Navy in 2013.

d. Russian T-72M1 and T-90S combat tanks make up most of the Indian Army’s main battle tank force (30%).

e. S-400 anti-missile system is a missile defence system.

A. a, b, c & d

B. a, c, d & e

C. b, c, d & e

D. All of the above

Ans: D

Cyber Security


CERT-In recently requested that all government and corporate institutions report cyber security breach occurrences within six hours of becoming aware of them.

Under Section 70B of the Information Technology Act, CERT-In is authorised to collect, analyse, and disseminate information on cyber security incidents.

What exactly is CERT-IN?

  • The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology established the Computer Emergency Response Team – India, intending to secure Indian cyberspace.
  • All service providers, intermediaries, data centres, corporations, and government entities must enable logs on all of their ICT (Information and Communication Technology) systems.
  • The service providers must keep the logs safe for 180 days and keep them inside Indian jurisdiction.

Qs. Under which section of the Information Technology Act is CERT authorised to collect, analyse, and disseminate information on cyber security incidents?

A. Section 70A

B. Section 70B

C. Section 70C

D. Section 70D

Ans: B

GPS Aided GEO Augmented Navigation


A small experiment employing GAGAN GPS (Global Positioning System) Aided GEO Augmented Navigation based LPV (Localizer Performance with Vertical Guidance) Approach Procedures was recently completed successfully by the Airports Authority of India (AAI).

  • Many airports are surveyed for the development of GAGAN-based LPV Instrument Approach Procedures, including those under the Regional Connectivity Scheme.
  • This is being done so that appropriately equipped aircraft can reap the greatest benefits in terms of increased landing safety, reduced delays, diversions, cancellations, and reduced fuel consumption, among other things.
  • GAGAN is a constellation of satellites and ground stations that corrects GPS signals to improve position accuracy.
  • It is the first system devised for India and other equatorial countries.
  • India (GAGAN), the United States (WAAS), Europe (EGNOS), and Japan are the only countries with space-based augmentation systems (MSAs).

Qs. Which of the following statements for GAGAN is correct?

a. ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation) and AAI collaborated on the Space-Based Augmentation System (SBAS).

b. The DGCA (Directorate General of Civil Aviation) certified the GAGAN System in 2015 for Approach with Vertical Guidance (APV 1) and en-route (RNP 0.1) operations.

c. GAGAN GEO has a footprint that stretches from Africa to Australia, and the GAGAN system can accommodate 45 reference stations for extension into neighbouring countries.

d. GAGAN transmits a civil aircraft navigation signal complying with ICAO and the GNSS Panel’s SARPs.

A. a, b & c 

B. a, b, & d 

C. b, c, & d 

D. All of the above

Ans: D

  • GAGAN provides a civil aeronautical navigation signal consistent with International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPs) as established by the Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) Panel.

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